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#127 Jun 06 2013 at 7:30 PM Rating: Default
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Idiggory wrote:
But being drunk is directly associated with a loss of higher mental function.

That doesn't negate the ability to give consent.

Idiggory wrote:
Ugly is arguing that consent from a drunk person should be treated the same way we treat drunk drivers


Why not? What's the difference? If you're sober enough to drive, then you're sober enough to be responsible for your actions. Likewise, if you're sober enough to willingly engage in sexual activities, then you're sober enough to be responsible for your actions.

#128 Jun 06 2013 at 7:32 PM Rating: Good
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I don't agree on a numeric level, sorry. I will agree that at 0.15+ is when most people will be feeling physically ill, very noticeable compromised mental ability, unable to move around, unconsciousness, etc. But I know it affects different people different amounts, and wouldn't want to leave a person with a smaller tolerance at a disadvantage because "sorry, you weren't above the legal sex limit, so it wasn't rape".


Hmm, funny idea, chastity belts with breathalyzer locks...

Edited, Jun 6th 2013 9:33pm by TirithRR
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#129 Jun 06 2013 at 7:44 PM Rating: Good
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Idiggory wrote:
Ugly is arguing that consent from a drunk person should be treated the same way we treat drunk drivers
Maybe I'm misinterpreting, but I think what Ugly was trying to get across is that there is a paradox:

On one hand, a woman is not responsible for her actions while intoxicated when it comes to consenting to sex, but is responsible for her action if she's caught driving drunk.
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#130 Jun 06 2013 at 8:52 PM Rating: Good
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Yeah, but my response is that it's not paradoxical, because our reasons and justification for the prosecution of drunk driving are generally unique to that specific crime compared to anything else I can think of.

And my other issue with the argument is that drunk driving is a fundamentally poor example, because it's an example of an act that becomes illegal because you have ingested a sufficient quantity of alcohol, where rape becomes illegal when someone else has consumed a sufficient amount (and you remain sufficiently sober to know better).

Because I'm tired, and it's just easier this way, I'll just resort to basic logic of analogies. Two situations are analogous only if their truth lines up within the realm of the relevant constraints.

Driving while Sober: Appropriately Legal Driving while intoxicated: Appropriately Illegal
Sex while sober: Appropriately Legal Sex while intoxicated: Appropriately Legal

I don't have to break down the sex while sober category into legal and illegal, because we already have sufficient reason to disregard the analogy. That is, if everyone is willing to accept that sex while intoxicated should be legal and that driving while intoxicated should be illegal. If you don't agree, this becomes more complicated and I don't really feel like breaking out a truth table that large for no reason.

I'm too tired and too used to arguments with philosophers to rephrase this in a different way right now. So I hope that suffices.

So if the question is "Why should we treat them differently?" my response would be "Because they're fundamentally different, and intoxication is the cause, so we cannot use intoxication as analogous between the two crimes." It means that the role it plays is fundamentally different. And that's important, because nothing about the argument I've used includes rape at all here. If you DO want the expanded version of a truth table, then here:


Driving a sober person while sober: legal Driving a sober person while drunk: illegal Driving a drunk person while sober: legal Driving a drunk person while drunk: illegal
Sex w/ a sober person while sober: legal Sex w/ a sober person while drunk: legal Sex w/ a drunk person while sober: illegal Sex w/ a drunk person while drunk: legal

They still don't match up. Even if you want to say it's not illegal to have sex with a drunk person while sober, the two situations aren't analogous.

If you want more than that, my answer is "I don't care." The argument is a false analogy fallacy. Drunk driving and consent just aren't similar enough to accept it.
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#131 Jun 06 2013 at 9:10 PM Rating: Good
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I agree they are different situations. But I don't end up at the same conclusion as you.

Your conclusion seems to be "Driving and sex are different therefore any amount of alcohol or impaired judgement makes consent impossible".

My conclusion is "Driving and sex are different, therefore some reasonable amount of alcohol and impaired judgement that would make driving illegal still allows for consent when it comes to various social activities including sexual intercourse"
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#132 Jun 06 2013 at 11:35 PM Rating: Excellent
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
Elinda wrote:
idiggory, King of Bards wrote:

It doesn't matter if the woman would have made the same decision while sober, because the crime is your dismissal of her right to give informed consent. It doesn't matter if you think that it should count, because inebriation is a violation of the fundamental concept of rational consent.

But it's not criteria that can be allowed when determining someone's liability or consequence. If a sober man asks you for a ten-spot when you're drunk and you give it to him, you can certainly claim he took advantage of you, but your blood-alcohol level doesn't make the exchange a crime.


Increase that sum to a level where it would be legal to sue them and it is considered theft, and you can be prosecuted for it.

And if it's an amount that exceeds the legal minimum, you can sue them for it.

Probably wouldn't bother for $20, but for $300 you certainly might take it to civilian court.


Some contracts have been annulled for this very reason.
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#133 Jun 07 2013 at 3:00 AM Rating: Good
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
.08 is low in that you can reach that point quickly if you're attempting to get drunk.
Uhm, .08 is low in that if you finish 1 drink in under 20 min while eating dinner, you will peak above .08 BAC. That would be why people are advised not to drive after even 1 drink.
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#134 Jun 07 2013 at 6:31 AM Rating: Decent
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Uglysasquatch wrote:
idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
.08 is low in that you can reach that point quickly if you're attempting to get drunk.
Uhm, .08 is low in that if you finish 1 drink in under 20 min while eating dinner, you will peak above .08 BAC. That would be why people are advised not to drive after even 1 drink.


Which is nothing more than a tangent anyway. Nothing has been provided on why sexual decisions should be treated any differently than any other decisions done while drunk.
#135 Jun 07 2013 at 7:36 AM Rating: Good
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TirithRR wrote:
I agree they are different situations. But I don't end up at the same conclusion as you.

Your conclusion seems to be "Driving and sex are different therefore any amount of alcohol or impaired judgement makes consent impossible".

My conclusion is "Driving and sex are different, therefore some reasonable amount of alcohol and impaired judgement that would make driving illegal still allows for consent when it comes to various social activities including sexual intercourse"


That's not my argument at all. My response to the question is: They're not analogous situations, so I don't care about how drunk driving works when the topic of conversation is rape.

Now, I think a discussion of the two topics together might teach us something really interesting about intoxication (or at least, something really interesting to a philosopher). I just don't think it's relevant when the discussion is about rape and consent.
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#136 Jun 07 2013 at 5:11 PM Rating: Decent
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It's statements like these that are confusing people though (or at least confusing too people):

idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
I originally cited the numbers because someone asked what legal limits would be used in a rape trial. In most states, that's .08, in some it's .1, because that's what they use as the legal definition of "drunk."


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Whether or not that matches the point of intoxication at which a jury would otherwise convict someone is another question entirely.


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Either way, a victim being over the legal limit is likely going to be deemed unable to consent by a court.


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Looking into it, I'm guessing you're right. I've only ever heard the legal definition being used.


You clearly seem to think that there's some common use of "drunk means you can't consent" in our legal system. But I (and I assume most of the other posters) have never heard of this anywhere. I'm not aware of a single jurisdiction anywhere in the US that uses whether someone is drunk, much less some legal BAC "limit" to determine if someone can legally consent to sex and thus whether the person was raped or not. You keep saying this (many more times than those I just quoted), but it's simply not true.

The legal limit for driving a car is .08. There is no limit for consenting to sex. At least not that I've ever heard of. So when you say something like "in most state it's (legal limits used in a rape trial) .08 or .1", you're saying something that's complete nonsense. And I think that's what people are reacting to with a "huh?" kind of response. At least I certainly have been.


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For the most part, it seems that an initiative to give some firm definition to the point at which consent no longer exists is still largely up for debate, and it falls to individual juries to make the decision. That's particularly problematic, because they don't have any definition to go off of - all I can find legally is circular reasoning. Someone is unable to give consent if they are intoxicated, and someone is intoxicated if they can give consent. That wording is atrocious, considering the same legal systems define intoxication as .08.


Again. Drop the assumption that people can't legally give consent to sex if they are drunk. That's where you keep getting into trouble.

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It SEEMS that the point at which juries start to have widespread agreement is probably somewhere around .15, where low-tolerance individuals will hit the blackout phase (high tolerance individuals will make it to .2, assuming they were going slowly and didn't vomit, before hitting the blackout phase).


No. Did you just make that up? There is no widespread agreement, among juries in rape cases or anywhere else. No one but you thinks that being drunk means someone can't consent to sex. Everyone else believes that being unable to consent to sex means you can't consent to sex. Whether that's because you are passed out from drinking, or are asleep, or in a coma, or mentally deficient, or paralyzed, etc doesn't matter. If you don't give consent and someone has sex with you anyway, they have raped you. It's really that simple.

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So let's just say that consent is impossible somewhere in the .15-.2 range, give or take. Does that work?



What works better is whether the person actually gives consent. You're trying to create rules that aren't needed. I can't tell by looking at someone what their BAC is. I can tell if that person is passed out and/or non-communicative. That's the standard we should use. What causes that is irrelevant. It's the lack of consent that matters.


It just feels like you're trying to create a case where someone can appear to give consent in every external way, but is somehow not responsible for having done so because they weren't in full control of their faculties. But as several people have said, this contradicts with how we deal with intoxication in other areas of our law. We don't allow you to drive while drunk, not because you aren't considered capable of making the decision to drive, or to be held responsible for that decision, but because you are physically incapable of driving safely. Now if the crime was having bad sex, you could argue for legal BAC limits. But the decision to have sex is still something you make and are responsible no matter how drunk you are, just as you are responsible for the decision to get behind the wheel of a car.


People who are drunk are responsible for their choices and actions. As long as they are making a choice and taking an action, it's on them. This absolutely should apply to sex as well. It should only be rape if the person didn't make a choice at all and didn't take an action (ie: passed out, incoherent, etc). Trying to create some zone of intoxication where people aren't responsible for their choices or actions is a really poor way to address the issue at hand IMO. It gives people a pass for their actions because "I'm too drunk". It pushes responsibility on everyone around them, and the result will likely be more victims, not fewer. We need to teach people to take responsibility for their actions and make their own decisions about what they do, not give them a great excuse for bad behavior.
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#137 Jun 07 2013 at 5:40 PM Rating: Good
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Rule regarding what consent is are a basic necessity for the comment of "What matters is whether or not someone gives consent" to have any meaning at all.

You're simply trying to argue for a different definition of consent than me, and are trying to cage that in different terms to distract from the actual issue.

I happen to believe that true consent is impossible to give if you aren't in a mental state that allows you to actually process the situation at hand. It's the same reason we don't accept drunk consent in legal matters, and require witnesses to approve major legal agreements like marriage. Their job is to bear witness that you are of sound mind, and making the decision of your own free will, without threat of violence or other egregious forms of coercion.

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Everyone else believes that being unable to consent to sex means you can't consent to sex. Whether that's because you are passed out from drinking, or are asleep, or in a coma, or mentally deficient, or paralyzed, etc doesn't matter. If you don't give consent and someone has sex with you anyway, they have raped you. It's really that simple.


You're 100% right here. Well, except for the "else" part. We all agree on the definition of rape. What we may or may not agree on is the definition of consent. And everyone else most certainly is not adopting the position that anything short of being passed out means consent is valid. Most of us have been arguing exactly what constitutes the definition of "drunk" with specific regards to when that would equate to losing the ability to give consent.

The only one I've actually noted as having the "if they're standing, I can **** 'em" stance is you and Alma. Not that I'm surprised.
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#138 Jun 07 2013 at 5:52 PM Rating: Default
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Gbaji wrote:
No one but you thinks that being drunk means someone can't consent to sex.


To be fair, the Army believes that nonsense as well.

Idiggory wrote:
The only one I've actually noted as having the "if they're standing, I can @#%^ 'em" stance is you and Alma. Not that I'm surprised.


Only if they give consent. Being drunk doesn't negate consent. It doesn't negate consent any other action, sex is no different. You have failed to provide a reason why sex should be treated any differently.

You either don't understand the stance being made and/or in denial. In either case, you're not presenting it accurately.
#139 Jun 07 2013 at 6:12 PM Rating: Decent
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
Rule regarding what consent is are a basic necessity for the comment of "What matters is whether or not someone gives consent" to have any meaning at all.

You're simply trying to argue for a different definition of consent than me, and are trying to cage that in different terms to distract from the actual issue.


Um... I'm arguing that whether someone gives consent should be based on whether they give consent. Period. You're the one trying to inject some new criteria that you can give consent, but if you're drunk it doesn't really count somehow because... ??? You haven't really given a reason. You just keep arguing it.

The reason people keep bringing up drunk driving is because it supports the opposite position. Our laws hold you responsible for decisions you make while drunk. If you get drunk and rob a liquor store, you are still responsible for robbing the liquor store. If you get drunk and drive you are responsible for having put people in danger with your poor driving. In every case I can think of in our legal system, being drunk does not excuse you from being responsible for what you do while drunk.

So why are you arguing that this should be different with sex? That's the part I don't agree with and for which you're provided no supporting argument. Can you tell us why you think this should be the case? Cause I don't see it.

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I happen to believe that true consent is impossible to give if you aren't in a mental state that allows you to actually process the situation at hand.


And I disagree. More correctly, I disagree that this should be the criteria used in the case of rape. It's not just unworkable, but flies in the face of our other laws.

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It's the same reason we don't accept drunk consent in legal matters, and require witnesses to approve major legal agreements like marriage. Their job is to bear witness that you are of sound mind, and making the decision of your own free will, without threat of violence or other egregious forms of coercion.


You're confusing entering into legally binding contracts with agreeing to have sex. There's no contract involved here. No third party is involved in enforcing your decision to have sex. And let's not lose sight of the comparison here. No one's saying that you can't sign a contract, or that someone else has committed a crime if you enter into one while intoxicated. The contract is not considered enforceable by a third party is all. That's not the same thing.

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Everyone else believes that being unable to consent to sex means you can't consent to sex. Whether that's because you are passed out from drinking, or are asleep, or in a coma, or mentally deficient, or paralyzed, etc doesn't matter. If you don't give consent and someone has sex with you anyway, they have raped you. It's really that simple.


You're 100% right here. Well, except for the "else" part. We all agree on the definition of rape. What we may or may not agree on is the definition of consent.


Um... Which is what I just talked about. Consent. So the "else" applies since "everyone else" thinks consent is based on whether the person gives consent, but you think that if you're drunk, that consent doesn't count. And yeah, based on other responses in this thread, it is pretty much "everyone else" who disagrees with you on this one.

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And everyone else most certainly is not adopting the position that anything short of being passed out means consent is valid. Most of us have been arguing exactly what constitutes the definition of "drunk" with specific regards to when that would equate to losing the ability to give consent.


No. You've been arguing that. Everyone else has been arguing that how drunk you are doesn't matter. What matters is whether you're able to give consent. If you verbally and physically consent to sex, you've consented to sex. Period. Doesn't matter if you're drunk. As long as you're not passed out, or incoherent, or otherwise incapable of clearly indicating your desire to have sex to your partner, then if you do clearly indicate that desire you have given consent. You're trying to massively over complicate things.

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The only one I've actually noted as having the "if they're standing, I can @#%^ 'em" stance is you and Alma. Not that I'm surprised.


No one has argued that. Standing is not consent. Consenting is consent. So saying "Let's have sex" is consent. Grabbing your partner and actively engaging in sex (do I need to get graphic here?) is consent. Lying motionless on a couch is not consent. Being propped up against a wall is not consent. I'm really not sure why you have such a hard time getting this. It's just not that hard.

Edited, Jun 7th 2013 5:15pm by gbaji
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#140 Jun 07 2013 at 6:15 PM Rating: Default
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I really don't understand idiggory at all in this thread. He's making a very bad argument for his case. I don't know if he thinks that this is what drunk is, when there are plenty of levels between .00 and that, including levels like this. Better not down a couple of these at the bar if you are looking to have relations that night
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#141 Jun 07 2013 at 6:37 PM Rating: Good
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And people say I'm the one that keeps bringing up BAC. Smiley: rolleyes
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#142 Jun 07 2013 at 6:48 PM Rating: Default
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
And people say I'm the one that keeps bringing up BAC. Smiley: rolleyes


Because every time someone goes to the visual ques of being too drunk, you go back to any amount of impaired. I said .00 to indicate not drinking. It would have been absolutely no different if I had said ".00 and that" or "not drinking and that".

So far you are the only one that keeps insisting on set levels of BAC for consent.
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#143 Jun 07 2013 at 6:54 PM Rating: Good
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Not really, you might want to take a look 15 or so posts ago when I said that I really didn't care about about BAC numbers, and only even brought them up in the first place because I misread a question someone was asking.

The suggestion that conversation move onto something actually worth discussing seems to be going well.
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#144 Jun 07 2013 at 7:05 PM Rating: Decent
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
and only even brought them up in the first place because I misread a question someone was asking.


If that's what you want to call completely talking out of your *** about the legalities of drinking and sexing.

Like I said, you have not argued your case very well at all throughout this three page thread. Whether or not a person can consent seems to shift wildly even within the same post.

But, we're all wrong, you are right. If someone drinks a beer at the bar, they shouldn't be allowed to legally consent to sexual intercourse. Let's move on to something worth discussing, and just close this thread, right?
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#145 Jun 07 2013 at 7:16 PM Rating: Good
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My point has never been about BAC, nor has it been contingent on the success of a BAC-specific argument.

My point has been about drunkenness in general and the way it relates to consent. BAC language was useful to try and establish common ground to make it easier.

If that's not a viable option, whatever. I'm sure I wasn't successful there. But it's no different than with using BAC for DUIs. We use .08 because it's a statistically useful number, not because it's an objective threshold at which someone becomes intoxicated. It's just the legal definition of drunkenness.

I honestly though it was the point a government would use, if they actually had BAC information. I was wrong. Right now, juries decide consent without any regard to legal definitions of drunkenness. I don't care that I was wrong, because it's not something I ever cared about. And a lot of the confusion stemmed from the fact that I completely misunderstood what was asked in the first place, and was arguing my point in a completely different context than anyone else. That's obviously on me.

We don't need BAC to find common ground about whether or not drunkenness should be a factor in determining if consent is possible. If you want to further define drunkenness, I'm game. But frankly, the initial conversation of this thread with regards to rape culture was far more interesting.

If we can all (minus gbaji and alma) accept that drunkenness negates consent, and that drunkenness is somewhere between "tipsy" and "passed out," I think that's all that's necessary to further a discussion.

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But, we're all wrong, you are right. If someone drinks a beer at the bar, they shouldn't be allowed to legally consent to sexual intercourse. Let's move on to something worth discussing, and just close this thread, right?


By all means, resort to a straw man.
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#146 Jun 07 2013 at 7:24 PM Rating: Decent
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
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But, we're all wrong, you are right. If someone drinks a beer at the bar, they shouldn't be allowed to legally consent to sexual intercourse. Let's move on to something worth discussing, and just close this thread, right?


By all means, resort to a straw man.


Merely a response to your call to talk about something worth discussing.

How about that tropical storm in Florida? Wonder how can we fit that into a rape thread...
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#147 Jun 07 2013 at 7:43 PM Rating: Good
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Well, I saw four accidents on my drive home today. Maybe someone's going to go to prison and have to answer to some guy named Big Ed?
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#148 Jun 07 2013 at 7:49 PM Rating: Good
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
Well, I saw four accidents on my drive home today. Maybe someone's going to go to prison and have to answer to some guy named Big Ed?


Or maybe like this
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#149 Jun 07 2013 at 7:59 PM Rating: Excellent
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I stopped myself from making that exact same joke. Smiley: lol

I figured the prison rape scenario gave me a better position to bring Alma into it.
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#150 Jun 07 2013 at 8:02 PM Rating: Default
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Idiggory wrote:
If we can all (minus gbaji and alma) accept that drunkenness negates consent, and that drunkenness is somewhere between "tipsy" and "passed out," I think that's all that's necessary to further a discussion.


Given that there is no law supporting your claim, obviously there are more people than myself and Gbaji who believe that simply being drunk (especially self intoxicated) doesn't negate your actions. Until you can explain why sex should be treated differently when drunk, you have no reason to support your claim.
#151 Jun 07 2013 at 8:06 PM Rating: Default
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idiggory, King of Bards wrote:
I stopped myself from making that exact same joke. Smiley: lol

I figured the prison rape scenario gave me a better position to bring Alma into it.


WTF is up with you and involving me with sex? I'm not interested. How ironic that a person who claims a self drunkard can't consent to sex is sexually harassing others.
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