gbaji wrote:
Then why would there be a problem taking middle school kids to one?
Because I don't agree with how the company is run and I don't want my money supporting it. Like I said in my first post. That first post in which I said, "Though after thinking about it and talking to my husband I probably wouldn't deprive my kid of his season-end party for those ideological reasons." (For the record, my husband actually said that my ideological reasons were pretty sound for not wanting to send my kid there, but that's neither here nor there.)
There you go with those pesky strawman arguments again, though.
gbaji wrote:
Yeah. I'll repeat what I said earlier and assume that the phrase is some sort of previously existing legal standard that had to be met to be able to hire only women. I suppose it's possible that Hooters came up with it all on their own, but given that this sort of legal issue (hiring women exclusively for certain positions and on the basis of physical appearance) has almost certainly been hashed out within the context of strip clubs long before Hooters came along, it's almost certain that language was from some earlier court ruling and Hooters was simply arguing that they should have that exemption because they provide that form of entertainment. I wouldn't read anything more than that from it. Certainly, I think it's reasonable to assume that if Hooters had a blank legal slate on this, that Hooters would use different language than that (like perhaps the language they actually use in their handbook). Then *that* would become the legal standard and we'd have strip clubs arguing that they should be exempt because they offer "entertainment through female sex appeal".
I could be wrong though. But usually when you see legal arguments like that they're attempting to claim that they meet some previously defined legal standard, and use the language of that standard when making their argument. I also don't feel like digging through the text of the actual court case, and then pouring through the precedents referenced in that case in order to see if the language was used previously or not. I'm content to say "maybe" on this one to be honest.
Edited, Nov 14th 2013 6:21pm by gbaji
I could be wrong though. But usually when you see legal arguments like that they're attempting to claim that they meet some previously defined legal standard, and use the language of that standard when making their argument. I also don't feel like digging through the text of the actual court case, and then pouring through the precedents referenced in that case in order to see if the language was used previously or not. I'm content to say "maybe" on this one to be honest.
Edited, Nov 14th 2013 6:21pm by gbaji
When did I say they came up with it on their own? Here's where you took issue with the phrase:
Quote:
I haven't found any source showing that Hooters described itself that way though. What they did attempt was to claim an exemption from equal employment laws, which was rejected because they were *not* a company engaged in "vicarious sexual entertainment". My understanding is that the phrase is the standard that the court found needed to be present in order for a company to be exempt from the employment rules. I don't think that Hooters used that phrase to describe what they were, but the court used it to describe what they were not.
I showed you where Hooters used that phrase to describe itself.
So yes, you were wrong.
Edited, Nov 14th 2013 8:29pm by Belkira
Edited, Nov 14th 2013 8:31pm by Belkira